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Understanding this Hadith


I was very confused with this Hadith. Here is the link to it:
I wanted to understand why the prophet did not condemn the husband for hitting his wife. I understand the wife may be at fault for accusing him of begin infertile and may have even provoked him by wanting to go back to her first husband. Regardless, I do not understand why the prophet did not acknowledge how terrible it was for the husband to hurt his wife so severely. Does this define what is considered “light beating” in the the Quran 4:34 and considered okay? If not, why did the prophet not use this moment to condemn the terrible action and use it to teach the husband what is and is not allowed in Islam?
Thank you!


Thank you for your question. Assuming that the hadith is correct it is conceivable that the narrater did not narrate what the Prophet (saw) said about the beating. According to the Ja’fari school of law such beating is a sin and the husband would be liable to pay compensation. Such beating is not what is meant by Quran 4:34.

May you always be successful.

Zoheir Ali.